6 Đề thi olympic tiếng anh lớp 6 có đáp án CẤP HUYỆN NĂM 2023 MỚI NHẤT

Yopovn · 26/5/23

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PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO TỨ KỲ
HỘI ĐỒNG THI OLYMPIC

ĐỀ THI OLYMPIC CẤP HUYỆN
NĂM HỌC 2022-2023
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 7
Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút
(Đề thi gồm 05 trang)

Học sinh làm bài vào tờ giấy thi
Phần trắc nghiệm: Chỉ cần viết phương án chọn A, B, C hoặc D
Phần tự luận: Viết đầy đủ theo yêu cầu của bài

A. LISTENING (20 points)
I. Listen to FIVE short conversations and choose the correct answer. (10 points)
1. How will they travel to the pop concert?

2. What was the weather like on Beth’s holiday?

3. Where has the teacher put the dictionaries?

4. Where did Paul go running yesterday?

5. What does Karen still need to get for the school play?

II. You will listen to a dialogue, and write the missing information. (5 points)

Cooking Lesson

Don’t forget: a big ………bowl………
6. Bring: some …………………, eggs and butter
7. Name of cakes: ……………………………
8. Number of cakes: ……………………………
9. Cooking time: ……………………………
10. Eat them with: ……………………………

III. You will hear Sarah Brown talking about her work as a television weather forecaster. Choose the best option (A, B, C or D). (5 points)
11. How long has Sarah worked as a weather forecaster?
A. two years B. eleven years
C. thirty years D. seven years
12. What does Sarah say about her job?
A. She enjoys getting up early. B. She sometimes has to work at night.
C. She works ten or twelve hours a day. D. She works four hours a day.
13. When Sarah does a weather forecast, __________________.
A. she prepares it in advance B. she sometimes forgets her words
C. she worries about making a mistake D. she always forgets her words
14. Sarah's husband______________________.
A. works on the same days each week. B. wants to move nearer his work
C. spends a lot of time travelling. D. spends a lot of time reading
15. Sarah is pleased because she_________________.
A. had her pilot's license B. taught her husband to play tennis
C. took part in a long race D. took part in a short race
B. VOCABULARY, GRAMMAR AND LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS (20 points)
I. Choose the word, phrase, or expression that best completes each sentence below. (20 points)
16. We are very excited ________ our Volunteer Program this summer holiday.
A. about B. for C. in D. with
17. We can help to reduce ________ by using public transportation, biking and walking.
A. water pollution B. air pollution C. social problems D. community service
18. My best friend loves _________a bike around the village at weekends.
A. ride B. to riding C. riding D. rode
19. The traffic jam prevented us from _________ home at lunchtime.
A. getting B. arriving in C. going at D. arrriving on
20. Hoa prefers colorful dances in Thailand_______shadow puppet shows in Indonesia.
A. as B. than C. to D. for
21. Doing that math problem was not_________ to me. I had to spend 20 minutes on it.
A. chalk and cheese B. a piece of cake C. cats and dogs D. here and there
22. Nam drives _________ . Therefore, he hardly has any accidents.
A. careless B. carefulness C. carelessly D. carefully
23. We should follow the advice from doctors and health experts in order to _______.
A. strong B. keep fit C. good health D. stay on shape
24. It often_________me 15 minutes to go to school by bike.
A. takes B. gets C. gives D. has
25. Our_________resources are limited so we should recycle all used things.
A. nature B. natural C. naturing D. naturally
26. They have decided to clean up the neighbourhood it is full of rubbish.
A. so B. but C. although D. because
27. Fossil fuels are very common in our society but they the environment.
A. renew B. provide C. waste D. pollute
28. John: “Could I have a table for two, please?” - Tom: "______."
A. No, thank you. B. The ones over there.
C. I want this table, please. D. Sorry, we’ve fully booked.
29. The boy ____________long hair was talking to the girl who was______red.
A. with/in B. of/at C. in/with D. at/of
30. The air is not as pure as it _____________
A. used to be B. is used to be C. is used to being D. was used to be
31. _________young nowadays have different hobbies from _________ old.
A. A/ the B. The/ a C. A/an D. The/ the
32. _________ films are about imaginary events in the future or in outer space.
A. Documentary B. Animation C. Science-fiction D. Thriller
33. Tom: “I’m not sure what to do this evening. Any idea?” - Vinh: "_______"
A. Why don’t we go to the cinema? B. You will go to the cinema, perhap?
C. Do you go to the cinema, perhaps? D. Why should we go to the cinema?
34. Mr. Nam: “I’ve got a terrible headache.” Mr. Long: “You_______some aspirins”.
A. should eat B. should drink C. should take D. should swallow
35. Mrs. Lan: "Would you like me to get you something to drink?" __Mrs. Tracey: " _________."
A. That would be nice B. No, I’m sorry C. That’s too bad D. My pleasure
II. Fill in each blank with the correct form of the word given in capital. (5 points)
36. It is _________to eat too much sugar and fat. HEALTH
37. I try not to remember this ________ experience that only leaves me with unhappy thoughts FRIGHTEN
38. She __________very excellently at the music contest last weekend. PERFORMANCE
39. They looked at him very _________ when he played football with his friends. HAPPY
40. Every day, there are two _________ from Da Nang to Ho Chi Minh City. FLY
III. Choose the underline word or phrase that is incorrect (5 points)
41. My father’s car is the same color like my uncle’s car.
A B C D
42. My sister is studying very hard in order to pass the exam and getting scholarship at university.
A B C D
43. Even though she looks young, she is twice older than my twenty- year- old sister.
A B C D
44. Despite of being a poor student, Tom studied very well and now he is very successful.
A B C D
45. The Vietnamese is diffcicult to learn though it is interesting and meaningful.
A B C D
C. READING
I. Choose the best explanation for each question. (5 points)

46.		A. The college secretary will post students their essays on Friday. B. Students may hand in their essays after Friday if they can prove illness. C. Unless your essay is due by Friday, you do not need to reply.
47.		A. Take the tablets regularly until the bottle is empty. B. Take one tablet every day until they are finished. C. Take three tablets after meals until you feel better.
48.		Kim suggests A. meeting at the footbal match. B. going to Ben’s house later. C. playing on his brother’s computer.
49.		A. John can deliver the sofa if the time is convenient. B. Anyone wanting this sofa must pick it up this week. C. Call John with advice on how he can transport his sofa.
50.		The hire charge covers all the costs_______. A. including fuel and insurance B. except insurance C. apart from fuel

II. Read the passage below and decide which option A, or B, C, D best fits each space. (10 points)
Thanksgiving
Thanksgiving is celebrated in the US on the fourth Thursday in November. For many Americans it is the (51)__________holiday apart from Christmas. Schools, offices and most businesses close for Thanksgiving, and many people make the whole weekend a vacation.
Thanksgiving is associated with the time when Europeans (52)_______came to North America. (53)_______1620 the ship the Mayflowers arrived, bringing about 150 people who today (54)_____usually called Pilgrims. They arrived at the beginning of a very hard winter and could not find enough food (55)__________, so many of them died. But in the following summer Native Americans showed them (56)___________foods were safe to eat, so that they could save food for the next winter. They held a big celebration to thank God and the Native Americans for the fact that they had survived.
Today people (57)________Thanksgiving to remember these early days. The most important part of the celebration is a (58)___________dinner with foods that come from North America. The meal (59)______turkey, sweet potatoes (also called yams) and cranberries, which are made into a kind of sauce or jelly. The turkey is filled with stuffing or dressing, and many families have their own special (60)_____. Dessert is pumpkin made into a pie.
51. A. more important B. most important C. as important as D. not important
52. A. first B. that C. here D. last
53. A. In B. on C. at D. of
54. A. is B. are C. be D. been
55. A. eat B. eating C. ate D. to eat
56. A. what B. where C. how D. who
57. A. decorate B. parade C. celebrate D. prepare
58. A. tradition B. traditional C. traditionally D. national
59. A. have B. consists C. cooks D. includes
60. A. recipe B. home C. reunion D. gratitude
III. Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each question. (10 points)
In the 1960s, the Beatles were probably the most famous pop group in the whole world. Since then, there have been a great many groups that have achieved enormous fame, so it is perhaps difficult now to imagine how sensational the Beatles were at that time. They were four boys from the north of England and none of them had any training in music. They started by performing and recording songs by black Americans and they had some success with these songs. Then they started writing their own songs and that was when they became really popular. The Beatles changed pop music. They were the first pop group to achieve great success from songs they had written themselves. After that it became common for groups and singers to write their own songs. The Beatles did not have a long career. Their first hit record was in 1963 and they split up in 1970. They stopped doing live performances in 1966 because it had become too dangerous for them – their fans were so excited that they surrounded them and tried to take their clothes as souvenirs! However, today some of their songs remain as famous as they were when they first came out. Throughout the world many people can sing part of a Beatles song if you ask them.
61. The passage is mainly about___________.
A. how the Beatles became more successful than other groups
B. why the Beatles split up after 7 years
C. the Beatles’ fame and success
D. many people’s ability to sing a Beatles song
62. The four boys of the Beatles___________.
A. came from the same family B. came from a town in the north of England
C. were at the same age D. received good training in music
63. The word “sensational” is closest in meaning to
A. notorious B. bad C. shocking D. popular
64. The first songs of the Beatles were___________.
A. written by themselves B. paid a lot of money
C. written by black Americans D. broadcast on the radio
65. What is NOT TRUE about the Beatles?
A. They had a long stable career
B. The members had no training in music
C. They had a long stable career
D. They became famous when they wrote their own songs
66. The Beatles stopped their live performances because___________.
A. They had earned enough money B. They did not want to work with each other
C. They spent more time writing their own songs D. They were afraid of being hurt by fans
67. The word “they” is closest in meaning to___________.
A. the Beatles B. the fans C. the songs D. the performances
68. When was their first hit record?
A. In 1963 B. In 1966 C. In 1967 D. In 1970

69. What did the fans try to take from the Beatles?
A. Their clothes and shoes B. Their clothes and hats
C. Their clothes and shoes as souvenirs D. Their clothes as souvenirs
70. What word might describe the attitudes of the writer?
A. admiration B. criticism C. neutral D. sarcasm
D. WRITING
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before. (10 points)
71. Of all the students in my class, no one is as confident as Mai.
→ Mai is_______________________________________.
72. They are interested in cartoons.
→They find_____________________________________.
73. If she doesn’t hurry up, she will miss the train to Bristol.
→ Unless_______________________________________.
74. I haven’t decided to continue my study in a foreign country.
→I haven’t made ________________________________.
75. Although the weather was bad, they went on working outside.
→ Despite _____________________________________.
II. Write a paragraph of about 100 – 120 words to give your opinion about what you should do to protect the environment in your neighbourhood. (15 points)

---------The end--------

PHÒNG GD & ĐT HUYỆN TỨ KỲ

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

HƯỚNG DẪN ĐỀ THI OLYMPIC CẤP HUYỆN
NĂM HỌC 2022-2023
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 7
(Đáp án gồm: 2 trang)

A. LISTENING (20 points)

I. Listen to FIVE short conversations and choose the correct answer by putting the tick (√) in the box A, B or C. (5 points)

1 A 2 B 3 B 4 C 5 B

II. You will listen to a dialogue, and write the missing information(5 points)

6. sugar 7. scones 8. 48 9.10 minutes 10.jam

III. You will hear Sarah Brown talking about her work as a television weather forecaster. Choose the best option (A, B, C or D). (10 p)

11. D 12. B 13. A 14. C 15. C

B. VOCABULARY, GRAMMAR AND LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS (30 points)

I. Choose the word, phrase, or expression that best completes each sentence below.

(20 pts: 1pt/ each correct answer)

16. A	17. B	18. C	19.A	20. C	21. B	22. D	23. B	24. A	25. B
26. D	27. D	28. D	29. A	30. A	31. D	32. C	33. A	34. C	35. A

II. Fill in each blank with the correct form of the word given in capital. (5 points)

36. UNHEALTHY 37. FRIGHTENING 38. PERFORMED 39. HAPPILY 40. FLIGHTS

III. Choose the underline word or phrase that is incorrect (5 points)

41.C 42.C 43.C 44.A 45.A

C. READING

I. Choose the best explantion. (5 point)

46. B 47. A 48. C 49. B 50. C

II. Read the passage below and decide which option A, or B, C, D best fits each space. (10 points)

51.B 52.A 53.A 54.B 55.D 56.A 57.C 58.B 59.D 60.A

III. Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each question. (10 points)

61.C 62.B 63.D 64.C 65.A 66.D 67.B 68.A 69.D 70.A

D. WRITING

I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before. (5.0 points)

71. Mai is the most confident (student) in my class.

72. They find cartoons interesting.

73. Unless she hurries up, she will miss the train to Bristol.

74. I haven’t made a decision to continue my study in a foreign country.

(I haven’t made up my mind to continue my study in a foreign country).

75. Despite the bad weather, they went on working outside.

III. (15 points)

Form: 2 pts
Contents: 8 pts
Grammar + Vocabulary: 5 pts

=== THE END ===

PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO TỨ KỲ
HỘI ĐỒNG THI OLYMPIC

ĐỀ THI OLYMPIC CẤP HUYỆN
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 6
Năm học 2022- 2023
Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút
(Bai kiem tra có 07 trang)

A. LISTENING

I. (10 pts) Listen to five short recordings and for each recording you have to choose the best of three pictures (A, B or C).

1. What was the weather on Wednesday?

A B C

2. How much did Mark’s pullover cost?

A B C

3. What did Raquel buy today?

A B C

4. How many students are there at the college?

A B C

5. What is David going to buy?

A B C

II. (5 pts) Listen to a school secretary talking to one of the teachers and fill in the gaps .

New Students

Student 1:
Name: Celine (0) Poulain
Nationality: French
Age: 25
Job: (6) ______________________________________

Student 2:
Name: Manuel Garcia

Nationality: (7) _____________________________________________
Age: 32
Job: Engineer

Student 3:

Name: Eva (8) ______________________________________

Nationality: Finnish

Age: (9) ________________________________________________

Job: (10) _______________________________________________

...

III. (5 pts) Look at the brochure of a house for rent. Listen and fill in the gaps.

JOHNSON’S ESTATE AGENCY

For Rent:	Large, attractive house in the city centre
Address:	342 (11) ___________ Lane
Upstairs:	3 spacious bedrooms, (12) _____________, study
Downstairs:	(13) _________kitchen, comfortable living room, dinning room, small bathroom.
Outside:	Large garden, (14)____________________
Rent:	500 pounds per month
Contact Mr. Weston Telephone number: (15)_______________

B. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR

I. (20 pts) Circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following sentences.

16. My cousin goes to a/an_________ school, the students come from many countries.

A. international B. national C. public D. boarding

17. Peter _______ an accident yesterday when he crossed the street.

A. made B. had C. played D. did

18. Phong _______ basketball with his younger brother three times a week.

A. does B. is doing C. plays D. is playing

19. My brother often helps me________ my homework.

A. at B. about C. for D. with

20. The Summer Camp is for students_____between 10 and 15.

A. age B. aged C. aging D. ages

21. My brother is a good driver. He is as _______ my father.

A. carefully as B. more carefully C. the most careful D. careful as

22. You______throw the rubbish into the West Lake.

A. may B. must C. mustn't D. may not

23. My close friend’s birthday is _______ June 1st .

A. in B. at C. on D. about

24. Ann: “________ do Vietnamese people prepare for Tet?”

Nam: “They decorate their houses and cook special food.”

A. What B. Where C. How D. How often

25. I _______what teacher ________ in the last lesson.

A. didn’t understand/ said B. didn’t understood/ said

C. understand/ say D. understood/ say

26. There is _______milk in the fridge but we can still make a cake.

A. many B. a little C. a few D. any

27. I think the teacher__________to class this afternoon because she is sick today.

A. won’t come B. is going to come C. came D. comes

28. If the weather______, we’ll have to camp somewhere else.

A. get worse B. will get worse C. gets worse D. got worse

29. My parents are going to build a __________for their car.

A. balcony B. big lake C. garage D. dining room

30. Yesterday, my aunt took me to the___________to buy an English dictionary for my 12th birthday.

A. museum B. post office C. swimming pool D. book store

31. My new classmate is___________and she often makes me laugh.

A. funny B. bored C. sad D. creative

32. Truong: “ Can you pass me that pair of shoes, please?” Long: “Yes, _______.”

A. here you are B. you’re welcome C. thanks D. good idea

33. Boy: “ I like watching cartoons in my spare time.” Girl: “________.”

A. I’m sorry I can’t B. Me too C. Never mind D. That’s right

34. Mary: “Would you like to go swimming?” Susan: “ ________.”

A. No, I don’t B. No, of course not

C. I’d love to, but I’m busy D.Please do.

35. Teacher: “Congratulations on your first prize!” Student: “ ________”

A. Thank you very much. B. The same to you.

C. Congratulations! D. It’s sad.

II. (5 pts) Give the correct form of the given words to complete the sentences.

36. Some people play sports to be _______________, not because they like it.
37. I’d like some bread. Let’s go to the _______________.
38. Did he live in a ___________village with his family in the south of England?
39. When they went camping in the forest, they brought _______________ bags to avoid dangerous insects.
40. They were talented _______________. They created many great buildings in big cities.

HEALTH
BAKE
BEAUTY
SLEEP

DESIGN

III. (5 pts) Choose the underlined word or phrase (marked A, B, C or D) in each sentence that needs correcting.

41. They use solar energy to cook and running home appliances.

A B C D

42. If we used recycled paper, we will save a lot of trees.

A B C D

43. Linda doesn’t have a map, because she can’t find our house.

A B C D

44. You can use mine computer until yours is repaired.

A B C D

45. Although the football game was over, a fans stayed in their seats cheering.

A B C D

C. READING

I. (5 pts) Match these notices with their meaning.

46. A. You must keep walking on the grass. B. You must walk on the grass. C. You can’t walk on the grass.
47. A.Customers can pay by credit card. B. Customers can only pay in cash. C. Customers don’t have to pay now.
48. A. Adults don’t have to pay. B. Children have to pay more than adults. C. Children don’t have to pay.
49. A. You mustn’t take pictures inside the building. B. You can bring the camera into the gallery. C. You can take photos but can’t record here.
50. This note means _______ A. The swimming pool is for people who go to The Water Fitness Classes. B. The Water Fitness Classes are free to people who swim ten times a month. C. This month, you can go to The Water Fitness Classes and use the swimming pool ten times without paying.

II. (10 pts) Choose the best option A, B, C or D that best fits the blank spaces in the following email.

Dear Sir,

I (51)________ Ha Long Bay with my brother (52) ________October 21st to 23rd. (53)________you have a double room with a shower for these days? How (54)________is the room? We would like a room facing (55) ________, if it is possible. Is there a restaurant in the hotel? We (56) ________meat but we ( 57) ________ all other kinds of food. We (58) __________ arriving in Ha Long Bay (59) _____________about 6 o’clock on Friday evening. We plan to leave the hotel (60) ________ Sunday morning.

I look forward to hearing from you soon.

Yours faithfully,

Peter Short

51. A. am visiting B. visit C. visiting D. can visit

52. A. from B. between C. since D. at

53. A. Do B. Does C. Can D. Must

54. A. many B. long C. much D. far

55. A. sea B. a sea C. the sea D. some sea

56. A. not eat B. don’t eat C. aren’t eating D. not eating

57. A. are like B. liking C. am liking D. like

58. A. am B. is C. are D. have

59. A. on B. in C. to D. at

60. A. in B. on C. at D. to

III. (10 pts) Read the following text and choose the best answer for each question.

We know that paper is made from trees, so recycling paper helps to save trees. Saving trees helps to prevent air pollution, soil erosion and floods.

In Britain, 12.5 million tons of paper are used every year. An average person uses 38kg of paper each year. It takes 24 trees to make one ton of paper. 67 % of paper used in Britain is kept for recycling.

Paper recycling is so important and we should recycle our waste paper. To get the benefits of recycling, we must give our contribution to the work.

Paper recycling is also a great chore for children depending on their age. It is an important way for children to learn about responsibility for saving money and trees, and working together. Recycling chores helps children to learn about going green and protecting natural resources. They can also help with recycling at home, at school and in the community.

- erosion

: sự xói mòn - contribution

: sự đóng góp - responsibility

: trách nhiệm

61. ‘Paper recycling’ means _______

A. Use paper less B. Use paper again and again

C. make new paper from old or used paper D. Throw old paper away

62. The word “average” is closest in meaning to _______

A. normal B. unusal C. strange D. special

63. Recycling paper helps to save trees because _______.

A. trees help to prevent air pollution B. paper is made from trees

C. trees help to prevent soil erosion D. trees help to prevent floods

64. How much paper does an average person in Britain use each year?

A. 12.5 million tons of paper B. one ton of paper

C. 38kg of paper D. 67 % of paper in Britain

65. Which of the following is true about paper recycling?

A. Paper recycling isn’t very important.

B. Paper recycling is a boring chore for children.

C. Children can’t do anything at home to help with recycling.

D. Paper recycling needs our contribution.

66. Paper recycling is an important way for children _______.

A. to learn about saving trees B. to take responsibility for using paper

C. to know how to make paper from trees D. to work together for money

67. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?

A. Children should use recycled paper.

B. Children must give their contribution to paper recycling.

C. Children can’t help with paper recycling at school.

D. Children can learn about saving trees and protecting resources.

68. What does the word “They” in the text refer to?

A. natural resources B. children C. Recycling chores D. trees

69. This text may be from _______

A. school timetable B. a student’s dairy C. a school’s website D. an email

70. The text is mainly about _______

A. Paper recycling is simple B. Paper recycling in Britain

C. It’s important for children to save paper D. Paper recycling is important

D. WRITING

I. (10 pts) Rewrite each of the following sentences so that its meaning doesn’t change.

71. It’s a good idea to listen to the weather forecast before going camping.

You should______________________________________________

72. Shall we go to Times Square to welcome the New Year?

Why don’t______________________________________________?

73. It was noisy, but we continued to study our lesson.

Although ______________________________________________

74. Tom drives to work every morning.

Tom travels______________________________________________

75. We plant trees and flowers in the schoolyard so our school will be a greener place.

If we______________________________________________

II. (15 pts) Use the information below to write a paragraph of 100 - 120 words about your plan for the next summer holiday.

Name of the place, means of transport, activities…

------The End-----

ANSWER KEYS

A. Listening

I. ( 2 x 5 = 10 pts )

1 – B 2 – A 3 – C 4 – C 5- A

II. ( 1 x 5 = 5 pts )

6. doctor 7. Mexican 8. Lipponen 9. twenty-one 10. artist

III. ( 1 x 5 = 5 pts )

11. Camford 12. Bathroom/ a bathroom 13. modern 14. (double) garage 15. 01345 789 798

B. Vocabulary and Grammar

I. ( 20 x 1 = 20 pts)

16. A	17. B	18. C	19. D	20. B	21. D	22. C	23. C	24. C	25. A
26. B	27. A	28. C	29. C	30. D	31. A	32. A	33. B	34. C	35. A

II. ( 5 x 1 = 5 pts )

36.	healthy
37.	bakery
38.	beautiful
39.	sleeping
40.	designers

II. ( 5 x 1 = 5 pts )

41. C

42. A

43. C

44. B

45. C

C. Reading

I. ( 5 x 1 = 5 pts )

46. C

47. B

48. C

49. A

50. B

II. ( 10 x 1 = 10 pts )

51. A	52. A	53. A	54. C	55. C
56. B	57. D	58. C	59. D	60. B

III. ( 10 x 1 = 10 pts )

61. C	62. A	63. B	64. C	65. D
66. A	67. C	68. B	69. C	70. D

D. Writing

I. ( 5 x 2 = 10 pts )

71. You should listen to the weather forecast before going camping

72. Why don’t we go to Times Square to welcome the New Year?

73. Although it was noisy, we continued to study our lesson.

74. Tom travels to work by car / motorbike every morning.

75. If we plant trees and flowers in the schoolyard, our school will be a greener place

II. (15 pts)