Đề kiểm tra học kì 2 môn tiếng anh 6 có đáp án năm 2023 - 2024 CÓ MA TRẬN, BẢNG ĐẶC TẢ

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Đề kiểm tra học kì 2 môn tiếng anh 6 có đáp án năm 2023 - 2024 được soạn dưới dạng file word gồm 10 trang. Các bạn xem và tải về ở dưới.

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC (LISTENING, LANGUAGE, READING, WRITING)​

SECTION A: LISTENING

Part 1 (1.25 pts) Listen and write. There is an example.

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HOMEWORK​
Homework: 1. For which day? NB 2. What to write? TH 3. How long? NB 4. What about? TH 5. Book to read? NB	English. ____________________. ____________________. ____________________pages. ____________________. The_________________world. ​

Part 2 (1.25 pts): Listen and tick the box. There is one example.

• What does Nick want for breakfast?
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• Which girl is Marry’s sister? NB
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  • Where did Kim play? TH
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  • Which animals did Sam like best at the zoo? TH
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  • What did Jill buy at the shop? NB
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  • What is Ben’s Mum cooking for supper? TH
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    SECTION B: VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR​
    Part 1 (1.0 pt): Odd one out. Which underlined part is pronounced differently in each line.
    1. A. beds B. notebooks C. lamps D. toilets NB
    2. A. judo B. going C. homework D. mother NB
    Part 2 (1.5 pts): Choose A, B, C, or D for each gap in the following sentences.
    1. Look! The girls are _______ rope in the playground.
    A. dancing B. playing C. skipping D. doing TH
    2. Tom and Jerry are at a restaurant.
    Tom: “What would you like to drink now?”
    Jerry: “_______.”
    A. No, thank you B. Yes, please VD
    C. I like to do nothing D. Orange juice, please
    3. Daisy is very _______ to take the test. She is a very good student.
    A. kind B. confident C. friendly D. talkative TH
    4. My mother has _______ hair with brown eyes.
    A. long curly black B. curly long black NB
    C. black curly long D. long black curly
    5. Peter is talking to Tim about the subjects at school.
    Peter: “ When do we have English?” VD
    Tim: “_________.”
    A. On Mondays B. Once a week C. About two hours D. At 2 o’clock.
    6. There are _______ apples in the refrigerator. TH
    A. a B. an C. some D. any
    7. John ………………. in a house in the countryside. NB
    A. live B. lives C. living D. to live
    8. Trang always gets up early so she is usually early ………………. school. NB
    A. on B. for C. at D. to
    
    
    SECTION C: READING​
    Part 1: (1.25) Read the passage and choose the best answer to fill in the blank.
    I live in a house near the sea. It is (1) ……………. Old house, about 100 years old and it’s very small. There are two bed rooms upstairs but no bathroom. The bathroom is down stairs next to the kitchen and there (2) ……………. a living room where there is a lovely old fire place. There is a garden in the house. The garden (3) ……………. down to the beach and in spring and summer there are flowers everywhere. I like being alone (4) ……………. my dog, Rack, but we have a lot of visitors. My city friends often stay with me. I love my house for (5) ……………. reasons: the garden, the flowers in summer, but the

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