ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH NĂNG KHIẾU CẤP HUYỆN Môn Tiếng Anh 7 NĂM 2022-2023 CÓ ĐÁP ÁN, FILE NGHE PHÒNG GD&ĐT UBND HUYỆN THANH SƠN

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ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH NĂNG KHIẾU CẤP HUYỆN Môn Tiếng Anh 7 NĂM 2022-2023 CÓ ĐÁP ÁN, FILE NGHE PHÒNG GD&ĐT UBND HUYỆN THANH SƠN được soạn dưới dạng file word,. MP3 gồm 3 file trang. Các bạn xem và tải về ở dưới.

UBND HUYỆN THANH SƠN PHÒNG GD&ĐT ​

ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH NĂNG KHIẾU CẤP HUYỆN NĂM HỌC 2022-2023 Môn: TIẾNG ANH 7​ Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)

PHẦN DÀNH CHO HỘI ĐỒNG CHẤM THI

Điểm bài thi​ Bằng số: ................................. Bằng chữ: ...............................

Họ tên chữ ký​ Giám khảo 1 Giám khảo 2 ……………… ………………...

Số phách (Do Chủ tịch Hội đồng chấm ghi) ​

========== Chủ tịch Hội đồng giám khảo rọc theo đường nét đứt này ==============

Họ tên chữ ký Giám thị số 1 Giám thị số 2 ............................................. ................................................

Số phách (Do Chủ tịch Hội đồng chấm ghi) ​ ​

THÍ SINH CẦN GHI ĐẦY ĐỦ CÁC MỤC DƯỚI ĐÂY

	Số báo danh (Thí sinh phải ghi cả phần chữ và phần số)​

Họ và tên thí sinh: ………………………………………………….

Ngày tháng năm sinh: ………………………………………………

Nơi sinh: …………………………………. Nam/ Nữ: …………….

Học sinh lớp: …………. Trường: ………………………………….

Phòng thi số: …………. Hội đồng coi thi: …………………………







Lưu ý: - Đề thi gồm 07 trang, thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào đề thi.

- Thí sinh không được sử dụng bất cứ tài liệu nào kể cả từ điển.

UBND HUYỆN THANH SƠN PHÒNG GD&ĐT (Đề thi có 07 trang)​

ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH NĂNG KHIẾU CẤP HUYỆN NĂM HỌC 2022-2023 Môn: Tiếng Anh 7 Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề.​

Điểm bài thi​ Bằng số: ................................ Bằng chữ: ..............................

Họ tên chữ ký​ Giám khảo 1 Giám khảo 2 ………………… …………………

Số phách ​

PART A. LISTENING (2.0 points)

I. Listen to Nuala talking to Sean about a recent travel experience and then choose the correct answer for questions 1-5 (1 point).

1. Nuala’s flight was at...................................................

A. 12:00. B. 12:30. C. 7:00.

2. Nuala was too late to get...............................................

A. the metro to the city. B. the bus to the airport. C. a taxi to the airport.

3. Nuala..............................................................................

A. stayed in the city. B. went back to her friend’s. C. went to a hotel.

4. During that night, Nuala.................................................

A. watched TV. B. read magazines and newspapers. C. got a bit of sleep.

5. Nuala waited at the airport for.........................................

A. five hours B. nine hours. C. four hours.

Write your answers here:

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

II. Listen and fill in the gaps. (1 point)

Johnson’s Estate Agency​

For Rent: Large, attractive house in the city (0) centre.

Address: 342 (1) ______________Lane

Upstairs: 3 spacious bedrooms, (2) ______________, study

Downstairs: (3) ______________ kitchen, comfortable

living room, dining room, small bathroom

Outside: Large garden, (4) ______________

Rent: £500 per month contact Mr Weston

(Tel. (5) ______________)

Write your answers here:

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

PART B. PHONETICS (1.0 point)

III. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others. (0.6 point)

1. A. folk B. tomb C. home D. comb

2. A. rustle B. whistle C. subtle D. castle

3. A. spaghetti B. dramatic C. tradition D. pavlova

Write your answers here:

1.

2.

3.

IV. Choose the word which has a part is stressed differently from the others. (0.4 point)

1. A. despite	B. dentist	C. destroy	D. describe
2. A. encouragement	B. economic	C. energetic	D. disappointment

Write your answers here:

1.

2.

PART C. LEXICO - GRAMMAR (8.0 points)

V. Choose the best answer and write letter A, B, C or D in the box. (7.0 points)

1. Lucy took …….. hamburger and ………….. apple, but she didn’t eat................. apple

A. a/an/a B. an/an/the C. a/an/the D. the/the/the

2. You’ll see hundreds of beautiful snow and ice ______ made by both locals and famous artists at the Sapporo Snow Festival.

A. balloon B. hot-air balloon C. sculpture D. bonfire

3. When the expert ……………… the room, all the people stood up.

A. came B. arrived C. appeared D. entered

4. He’s never been to the United States, ........................ ?

A. isn’t he B. is he C. hasn’t he D. has he

5. I think that ……………… cauliflower is not enough for three people. Let’s buy one more

A. a clove of B. a head of C. a loaf of D. a pinch of

6. We should help the street children because they have bad ………………..

A. conditions B. life style C. earning D. live

7. A ……………….. is an official document that shows you are able to drive.​

A. driver license B. driving license

C. license driving D. driving licensed

8. There was a hard rain....................... we cancelled the trip to Hoi An Lantern festival.

A. although B. so C. because D. but

9. A large number of students in this school ………………….. English quite fluently.

A. is speaking B. speak C. speaks D. has spoken

10. The Caspian Sea, a Salt Lake, is ………………….. any other lakes in the world.

A. larger than B. largest C. the largest D. the larger than

11. There are many .......................... desks in our classroom.

A. large nice round wooden B. wooden round large nice

C. nice round large wooden D. nice large round wooden

12. John: “I didn’t pass my driving test.” ~ Anna: “......................!”

A. Better luck next time B. So poor

C. Congratulations D. That was nice of you.

13. They received ………………. advice from their parents that they became successful.

A. so good B. such a good C. so good an D. such good

14. All the boys are good at cooking, but ……………….. is as good as the girls.

A. either B. neither C. every D. none

15. The government has introduced a new …………….. campaign in an attempt to reduce the number of road accidents.​

A. road user B. transport C. road safety D. traffic jams



16. We can tell you that we often have a friendly ……………… in our class.

A. atmosphere B. air C. matter D. impression

17. Special Diwali ……………..is held across the country in October or November.

A. celebrate B. celebratory C. celebrity D. celebration

18. This painting is prettier, but it costs …………………..the other one.

A. so much as B. as many as C. twice as much as D. twice as many

19. Yesterday I came ........................ your brother when I was on the way to the stadium.

A. up B. across C. along D. in

20. That man can tell us where ………………………

A. does John live B. is John living C. John lives D. John live

21. My younger sister will be taken ……………. an interesting camping trip next weekend.

A. out B. on C. off D. about

22. A few days ago I received a (an) …………………… from Julia.

A. eleven-page-letter B. page-eleventh -letter

C. eleven-pages-letter D. eleventh-pages-letter

23. We may know the land very well, but we know very ..................about the oceans.

A. few B. little C. much D. a little

24. My father isn’t keen on mountain climbing because it is …………………

A. dangerous B. in danger C. endangered D. danger

• 25. The dove is a universal...................... of peace.
• A. symbolizing B. symbolize C. symbolic D. symbol

26. The more exercise you take, ………………….. you will feel.

A. better B. the best C. the better D. the more better

27 In order to avoid boredom, the most important thing is to keep oneself ..........................

A. occupying B. occupied C. occupant D. occupational

28. Watching too much TV is not good for our health …………... it can make us short-sighted.

A. but B. or C. so D. because

• 29. “I’d like a photo of Martin and me” - “I ……………… one with your camera, then”
• A. will take B. take C. took D. taken

30. Tom: “I’m not sure what to do this evening. Any idea?”

- Vinh: “…………………….”

A. Why don’t we go to the cinema? B. You will go to the cinema, perhaps?

C. Do you go to the cinema, perhaps? D. Why shouldn’t we go to the cinema?

31. My doctor always gives me advice ………………. healthy living and I pass it on to my friends at school.

A. in B. at C. on D. with

32. The first thing many people do when they want ............... weight is dramatically cut their calories.
A. to gain	B. to lose	C. to cut	D. to decrease

33. Wearing a band over the wrist allows players …………………….. safely.

A. playing

B. play

C. plays

D. to play

Choose the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following sentences:

34. School uniform is required in most of Vietnamese schools.

A. divided B. depended C. compulsory D. paid

Choose the word or phrase that is OPPOPSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following sentences:

35. You are not allowed to smoke in this hall.

A. forbidden B. asked C. seen D. made



Write your answers here:

1.	6.	11.	16.	21.	26.	31.
2.	7.	12.	17.	22.	27.	32.
3.	8.	13.	18.	23.	28.	33.
4.	9.	14.	19.	24.	29.	34.
5.	10.	15.	20.	25.	30.	35.

VI. Identify the mistake in each sentence (1.0 point)

1. They are going to have a CD listening party at their house at Sunday night.

A B C D

2. Tom Hanks is one of the most famous and rich actors in Hollywood.

A B C D

3. On the way, we passed many interested sights.

A B C D

4. Two kilometers are not a long distance for him to walk.

A B C D

5. The house is not very big, but there is a lot of furnitures.

A B C D

Write your answers here:

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

PART D. READING (5.0 points)

VII. Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word (2.0 points)

I’ll never forget my visit to Hong Kong. When I arrived, everybody was very busy (1) ……………. the preparations involved. The atmosphere was fantastic. There (2) ……………. bright colours and delicious smells everywhere. The local (3) ……………. were cleaning every corner of their house and (4) ……………. the walls with red pieces of paper.

(5) ……………. custom is to cook fish on New Year’s Eve and eat it the next day. My friend told me that they wanted to have (6) ……………. to eat on the first day of the year.

I was really looking (7) ……………. to New Year’s Eve dinner. The (8) ……………._ family got together and everyone was really happy. I noticed that the grandparents and parents gave children red envelopes with money (9) …………….. After dinner they all started playing cards for good luck. Nobody went to sleep (10) ……………. midnight. At midnight the great event begins: fireworks! I was really amazed. All around the city I could see and hear colourful fireworks. It was incredible and I was really excited.

1. A. with B. for C. to D. about

2. A. was B. were C. had D. have

3. A. women B. men C. children D. people

4. A. building B. decorating C. painting D. repairing

5. A. other B. others C. another D. the other

6. A. nothing B. something C. anything D. everything

7. A. for B. at C. after D. forward

8. A. all B. most C. whole D. almost

9. A. inside B. outside C. in D. insides

10. A. after B. at C. before D. on



Write your answers here:

1.	6.
2.	7.
3.	8.
4.	9.
5.	10.

VIII. Circle best option A, B, C or D to complete the following passage (1.0 points)

Many people like to keep pets. Dogs and cats are very popular pets. Some people, however, keep birds or goldfish. They need less space and are easier to look after.

If you want to have a pet, you can buy one from a pet shop but you must be careful not to buy a sick animal. It is best if you know something about the pet you want. This helps you choose a healthy pet. However, if you do not have much money and know very little about animals, you can visit the Royal Society for the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals (RSPCA).

The first society for the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals was founded in England in 1821. It was set up to make sure that all animals are treated with kindness. The RSPCA in Hong Kong carries out this aim. The RSPCA officers collect animals which have no homes and are left in the street. They look after them until they are healthy again. People visiting the RSPCA may choose their pets from these animals and you can be sure that you will get a healthy pet. If later your pet becomes ill, you can take it to the doctors at the RSPCA for treatment.

When you have a pet, it is very important that you look after it properly. You must remember to feed it at suitable times. You should also give it a clean and comfortable place to rest. Your pet will be happy and healthy if you love it and care for it properly.



1. According to the passage, what kind of pet needs more space?

A. A dog B. A bird C. A goldfish D. A mouse

2. What can help you choose a healthy pet?

A. Being careful with your money B. Having a lot of money

C. Learning about a pet you want D. Visiting many pet shops

3. The first society for the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals was founded .

A. in 1924 B. more than 1000 years ago C. in England D. in 1842

4. What does the RSPCA do with sick and homeless animals?

A. Leave them in the streets B. Make them healthy again

C. Give them to people who cure sick pets D. Sell them to pet shops

5. You can always be sure that every pet from the RSPCA .

A. will never get sick B. is collected from a dustbin

C. always needs too much care D. is strong and healthy

Write your answers here:

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

IX. Fill in each numbered blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answer in the numbered box (2.0 points)

Sandwiches are common in many countries. But (1) ……………. did this strange name come from? The Earl of Sandwich (1718-1792) was an Englishman. He likes playing cards. One night he played (2) ……………. hours and got very hungry but he didn’t want to (3) …………….his card game. He asked for some roast meat between two (4) ……………. of bread. (People bake roast meat in the oven (5) ……………. a stove). He ate the food while he played (6) …………….. People gave his name to (7) ……………. new kind of food.

Pizza is another international (8) …………….. A baker probably invented the pizza in Naples Italy. It was about the (9) ……………. time as the first sandwich. “Pizza” means “pie” in Italian. People have (10) ……………. the name “pizza pie” for a long time. Now it is just “pizza”

Write your answers here:

1.................	2.................	3...................	4....................	5................
6.................	7................	8....................	9.....................	10...............

PART E. WRITING (4.0 points)

X. Use given words to rewrite the second sentence that the meaning does not change (1.0 point).

1. We will solve the problem of energy shortage by using solar energy.

=>The problem ………………………………………………………………………..

2. Mai Lan is among the most clever students in my school.

=> Mai Lan is one……………………………………………………..……………….

3. I find talking to other people in English very easy.

=> I am………………………………………………………………..………………..

4. My sister didn't attend the festival and your sister didn't, either.

=> Neither my sister……………………………………………………………………

5. She lost her job last month and has been out of work ever since.

=> She’s been ................................................................................................................

XI. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word in bold given in brackets. Do NOT change the word given. (1.0 point)

It is dangerous for you not to obey traffic rules. ( BETTER)

=> You ……………………………………………………..…………………………………...

• This bike is 800,000 VND. That bike is 600,000 VND ( DIFFERENT)
• => The price ………………………………………..……………….…………………………..
• The Carnival Festival often makes visitors excited. (ABOUT)

=> Visitors ……………………………………..………………………………………………...

Dense population will affect the quality of life in a country. (EFFECT)

=> Dense population……………………………………………………………………………...

They have a three - month summer holiday. (LASTS)

=> Their………………………………………………………………………………………...

XII. Write a paragraph (100 – 120 words) about advantages and disadvantages of studying abroad. (2.0 points)

(Do not show your name, your school’s name or your village’s name)

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THE END













(Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu gì, kể cả từ điển)​

UBND HUYỆN THANH SƠN PHÒNG GD&ĐT ​

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM THI CHỌN HỌC SINH NĂNG KHIẾU CẤP HUYỆN NĂM HỌC 2022-2023 Môn: Tiếng Anh 7​

PART A. LISTENING (2.0 points)

I. Listen and choose the correct answer (1.0 point)

Write your answers here:

1. C

2. B

3. A

4. B

5. C

II. Listen and complete the notes below. Write no more than two words or a number for each answer (1.0 point)

Write your answers here:

1. Camford

2. bathroom

3. Modern

4. (double) garage

5. 01345 789 79

PART B. PHONETICS (1.0 point)

III. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others.

1. B

2. C

3. D

IV. Choose the word which has a part is stressed differently from the others

1. B

2. A

PART C. LEXICO GRAMMAR (8.0 points)

V. Choose the best answer by circling its corresponding letter A, B, C or D (7.0 points)

1. C	6. A	11. D	16. A	21. B	26. C	31. C
2. C	7. B	12. A	17. D	22. A	27. B	32. B
3. D	8. B	13. D	18. C	23. B	28. D	33. D
4. D	9. B	14. D	19. B	24. A	29. A	34. C
5. B	10. A	15. C	20. C	25. D	30. A	35. A

VI. Identify the mistake in each sentence (1.0 point)

1. D

2. C

3. C

4. B

5. D

PART D. READING (5.0 points)

VII. Circle best option A, B, C or D to complete the following passage (2.0 points)

1. A	2. B	3. D	4. B	5. C
6. B	7. D	8. C	9. A	10. C

VIII. Read the following passage and choose the best answer (1.0 point)

1. A

2. C

3. C

4. B

5. D

IX. Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word (2.0 points)

1. where	6. cards
2. for	7. this/the
3. stop	8. food
4. pieces	9. same
5. or	10. used

PART E. WRITING (4.0 points)

X. Use given words to rewrite the second sentence that the meaning not change (1.0 point)

1. The problem of energy shortage will be solved by using solar energy.

2. Mai Lan is one of the most clever students in my school.

3. I am used to talking to other people in English.

4. Neither my sister nor your sister attended the festival.

5. She’s been out of work since last month.

XI. Complete the second sentence, using the word given in BOLD. Do not change the word given. You must use between three and six words, including the word given (1.0 point).

• You had better obey traffic rules.
• The price of this bike is different from that bike.

3. Visitors feel excited about the Carnival Festival.

4. Dense population will have effect on the quality of life in a country.

5. Their summer holiday lasts three months.

XII. Write a paragraph (100 – 120 words) about advantages and disadvantages of studying abroad. (2.0 points)

(Do not show your name, your school’s name or your village’s name)

​	Mô tả tiêu chí đánh giá​	Điểm tối đa​
Bố cục	- Câu đề dẫn chủ đề mạch lạc - Bố cục hợp lí, rõ ràng, phù hợp yêu cầu của đề bài - Bố cục uyển chuyển từ mở bài đến kết luận	0,6​
Phát triển ý	- Phát triển ý có trình tự logic - Có dẫn chứng, ví dụ, … đủ để bảo vệ ý kiến của mình	0,2​
Sử dụng ngôn từ	- Sử dụng ngôn từ phù hợp nội dung - Sử dụng ngôn từ đúng văn phong/ thể loại - Sử dụng từ nối các ý cho bài viết uyển chuyển	0,3​
Nội dung	- Đủ thuyết phục người đọc - Đủ dẫn chứng, ví dụ, lập luận - Độ dài: Số lượng từ không nhiều hơn hoặc không ít hơn so với qui định 5%	0,6​
Ngữ pháp, dấu câu, và chính tả	- Sử dụng đúng dấu câu - Chính tả: Viết đúng chính tả (lỗi chính tả gây hiểu nhầm/sai lệch ý sẽ bị tính một lỗi và bị trừ 1% điểm của bài viết; cùng một lỗi chính tả lặp lại chỉ tính một lỗi) - Sử dụng đúng thời, thể, cấu trúc câu đúng ngữ pháp (lỗi ngữ pháp gây hiểu nhầm/sai lệch ý sẽ bị tính một lỗi và bị trừ 1% điểm của bài viết)	0,3​
Tổng​	2,0 điểm​