MÔN TIẾNG ANH TUYỂN TẬP Đề thi học sinh giỏi tiếng anh 6 cấp huyện CÓ ĐÁP ÁN, FILE NGHE QUA CÁC NĂM TƯỜNG THCS TRẦN MAI NINH, PGD&ĐT TP THANH HOÁ

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TUYỂN TẬP Đề thi học sinh giỏi tiếng anh 6 cấp huyện CÓ ĐÁP ÁN, FILE NGHE QUA CÁC NĂM TƯỜNG THCS TRẦN MAI NINH, PGD&ĐT TP THANH HOÁ được soạn dưới dạng file word, audio gồm các file trang. Các bạn xem và tải về ở dưới.
PGD&ĐT TP THANH HOÁ

TRƯỜNG THCS TRẦN MAI NINH​ ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Đề thi có 05 trang​

ĐỀ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN HỌC SINH GIỎI TIẾNG ANH 6 NĂM HỌC 2022 – 2023 Ngày thi: /10/2022 Thời gian làm bài 90 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề ​

Họ và tên: …………………………………………................………. Lớp 6 ……………

Số báo danh	Họ tên, chữ kí giám thị 1	Họ tên, chữ kí giám thị 2	Số phách

-------------------------------------Đường cắt phách-------------------------------------------------

Điểm bài thi (Bằng số)	Điểm bài thi (Bằng chữ)	Giám khảo 1	Giám khảo 2	Số phách

​

Lưu ý:

- Đề thi gồm 05 trang, thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào đề thi. - Thí sinh không được sử dụng bất cứ tài liệu nào kể cả từ điển.

PART A: LISTENING​

Question I. Listen to the short talk twice and circle the correct answer to each of the following questions

1. What time does Joshua go to school?

A. at 8.45 a.m B. at 9.00 a.m C.at 8.00 a.m D. at 8:30 a.m

2. What is the first thing Joshua does when he gets to school?

A. Stand up B. Bow and sit down

C. Stand up and sit down D. Stand up and bow

3. Where does Joshua eat lunch at school?

A. in the gymnasium B. In the library

C. In the lunchroom D. In his classroom

4. What time does Joshua probably get home from school most days?

A. between 1:00 p.m and 2:00 p.m B. between 2:00 p.m and 3:00 p.m

C. between 3:00 p.m and 4:00 p.m D. between 4:00 p.m and 5:00 p.m

Question II. Listen to the conversation twice and decide whether the following sentences are True or False.

5. Most kids say their subjects are boring . T F

6. The hours at school usually just nine hours a day. T F
7. They can’t get to see and play with your friends at school. T F

8. Students can bring their own lunch to school. T F

​

PART B: PHONETICS ( 05 pts)​

Question I. Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others. ( 03pts)

9. A. come B. someone C. brother D. volleyball
10. A. toilets B. beds C. notebooks D. graphs

11. A. psychology B. positive C. patient D. present

Question II. Circle the word with different stress pattern in each group. (02pts)

12. A. surround B. active C. elbow D. poem

13. A. notebook B. supply C. boarding D. pencil

PART C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (35 pts):​

Question I: Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence (15pts):

14. Daisy is very _________ to take the test. She is a very good student.

A. confidently B. confidentially C. confident D. unconfident

15. Let’s ___________ our school uniform and go to school.

A. Take off B. put off C. wear on D. put on

16. The children look very ___________ while playing games during break time.

A. excite B. excited C. excitement D. exciting

17. I love my neighborhood because it is _____________ . There are not many cars.

A. peaceful B. crowded C. expensive D. noisy

18. Paola often helps me with my homework. She’s very _________. A. kind B. shy C. lazy D. short 19. You should keep your food in the ______ to preserve it. A. cupboard B. sink C. dishwasher D. fridge

20. Nam can wait hours for his friends without getting angry. He is a _________ boy.

A. hard -working B. free C. patient D. lazy

21. My mum always asks me to wash my _________ before meals.

A. fingers B. arms C. hands D. legs

22. What does your friend look like?

A. She is very active B. She has a long ruler

C. She is funny D. She has black eyes

23. - "How's your class this year?"

- "Great. ___________ forty-seven students, and they are good friends."

A. It's B. They're C. There's D. There're

24. He sits ___________the floor.

A. from B. on C.in D. among

25. Which do you prefer, straight hair or ___________ hair?

A. long B. blonde C. curly D. thick

26. A video lab is _______________ useful means for language learning.

A. a B. an C. the D. ø

27. I'm always nervous when I'm ________________ an exam.

A. taking B. making C. working D. writing

28. - Dang Le Nguyen Vu: “I won the breathtaking Road to Olympia 2022”

- You: __________

A. Really B. Thank you C. Congratulations D. Well

Question II. Supply the correct form of the verbs in brackets.

29. The train (leave) at 8 a.m tomorrow. ____________

30. We usually (read) books in the library. ____________

31. Josh (always/use) my bike! It’s so annoying! ____________

32. My parents (not/watch) TV at the moment. ___________

33. Can I borrow your scissors? Mine (not/be) sharp enough. ____________

34. You can borrow my umbrella. I (not need) it now. ____________

35. A new series of wildlife programmes (be) on at 9 o’clock Monday evenings. ____________

36. (Not throw) rubbish on the street. ___________

Question III. Supply the correct form of the capital words at the end of the sentences.

37. Lan is very ________________.She always on the phone chatting to friends. TALK

38. We can _____________ empty glass jars to store food, like jam and nuts. USE

39. My father has a __________ computer . He often brings it with him when he's away on business. PORT

40. Tom is the most _____________ person I’ve ever met. BORE

41. Can you lend me your pencil _______________ ? SHARP

42. Viet is very ________________ . He always has a lot of new ideas. CREATE

43. My pleasure as a chef is to see the customers eat my food__________. HAPPY

Question IV. Find and correct one mistake in each of the following sentences.

44. Would you like seeing a movie with me tonight? ________________

A B C D

45. Mai learns how to use a computer in her scientific class. ________________

A B C D

46. Physics are one of my favorite subjects at school. ________________

A B C D

47. Typhoon Noru hit Da Nang, Vietnam in Wednesday morning. ________________

A B C D

48. Long often spends about a hour watching TV every day. ________________

A B C D

PART D: READING (25 pts):​

Question I. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. for each blank

What do you do if you want to (49) _____________a book in a library? If you know the author’s (50) _________________,go to the author catalogue. Find the title of the book (51) ___________check the shelf mark. Make a note of this before you look (52)__________ the appropriate shelf. If you do not know the author’s name, go to the (53)_________ catalogue. If there (54) ___________________

no title catalogue in the library, go to the subject catalogue. Check all the titles which are under the (55) ______________________you want. Then check the appropriate card, as with the author catalogue. Next look for the book on the shelf. Let the librarian stamp it (56) ______________ you take it out of the library. If the book isn’t (57) ______________ the shelf, ask the (58) ______________ to get it for you.



Question II. Read the following passage and choose the most suitable word or phrase for each space. (10 pts)

Breakfast is the (59) ______ important meal of the day. It (60) ______ the nutrients your body needs for good health, the calories it needs for (61) ______ and helps to maintain your blood sugar level. Studies have shown that people who don’t have breakfast have a low blood sugar level and are often slow, tired, hungry and (62) ______ to concentrate. (63) ______, breakfast actually plays a (64) ______ in weight control. It's easier to (65) ______ weight if you eat in the morning rather than later in the day. Dividing the day’s calories (66) ______ three meals helps take-off weight (67) ______ efficiently than (68) ______ breakfast and having two larger meals a day does.

59. A. healthy B. tasty C. main D. most

60. A. provide B. provides C. providing D. provided

61. A. strength B. power C. energy D. effort

62. A. able B. enable C. unable D. capable

63. A. Surprisingly B. Surprising C. Surprised D. Surprise

64. A. means B. meal C. health D. part

65. A. lose B. put C. gain D. drop

66. A. in B. into C. up D. for

67. A. much B. so C. as D. more

68. A. skipping B. making C. buying D. serving



Question III. Read the following passage and then choose the best answer A, B, C or D (05 pts)

Scientists believe that the smart home may be the home of the future. These homes may be of different shapes and sizes. They may also float on the water.

Scientists have designed the eco houseboat – a kind of house floating on the sea. But the houseboat is stable and doesn’t rock heavily when there are big waves. It makes use of wave and solar energy to move it around and provide power. It also has solar panels on the top of the house to generate electricity. And it can recycle all kinds of household waste.

A robot controls everything in the house and does the housework. In the kitchen, smart refrigerators and dish washes can automatically work by themselves. A smart oven can cook your favourite dishes. All these things and other advances will make our life much better.

69. The eco houseboat will be ___________

A.in the air B. on the sea C. in the ocean D. on big waves

The word “stable” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ___________

A. comfortable B. not moving C. not sinking D. peaceful

What is special about the kitchen in the houseboat?

A. A robot B. Special dishes C.Smart equipment D. Dish washers

Which of the following is NOT true?

A. Scientists have built the eco houseboat. B. The eco houseboat can make power.

C. The houseboat can recycle waste. D. Our life will be better.

What is the main idea of the passage?

A. Life in the future B. Generating electricity in the future.

C. Shapes and sizes of houses. D. A special kind of house

PART D: WRITING (15 pts):​

Question I. Rewrite each sentence, beginning as shown, so that the meaning stay the same.

74. Susan often walks to school with her friends.

-> Susan often goes ______________________________

75. My friend keeps forgetting her keys.

-> My friend is _____________________________________________.

76. Is there a garden in front of the house?

-> Does the house ______________________________________?

77. Showers use 25% of the water in homes.

->Showers use a ________________________________________________.

Question II. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. Do not change the form of the given word.

78. The tourists like to lie on the beach sunbathing. in

-> The tourists are ___________________________________________ sunbathing.

79. Students at our school do a lot of outdoor activities. in

-> Students at our school take _____________________________

80. I like my neighborhood most because other places are not as peaceful. as

--> No other place ____________________________my neighborhood.





- The end -

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM VÀ BIỂU ĐIỂM​

PART A: LISTENING

I. Listen to the short talk twice and circle the correct answer to each of the following questions

1. C. at 8.00 a.m

2. D. Stand up and bow

3. D. In his classroom

4. B. between 2:00 p.m and 3:00 p.m

II. Listen to the conversation twice and decide whether the following sentences are True or False

5.T 6.F 7. F 8.T

PART A: PHONETICS ( 05 pts)

Question I. Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others. ( 03pts)

9. D. volleyball
10. B. beds

11. A. psychology

Question II. Circle the word with different stress pattern in each group. (02pts)

12. A. surround

13. B. supply

PART B: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (35 pts):​

Question I: Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence (15pts):

14. C. confident

15. D. put on

16. B. excited

17. A. peaceful

18. A. kind

19. D. fridge

20. C. patient

21. C. hands

22. D. She has black eyes

23. D. There're

24. B. on

25. C. curly

26.A. a

27. A. taking

28. C. Congratulations

Question II.

29. leaves

30. read

31. is always using

32. are not/(aren’t) watching

33. are not/(aren't)

34. do not/ (don’t) need

35. is

36. Don’t throw



Question III.

37. talkative

38. reuse

39. portable

40. boring

41. sharpener

42. creative

43. happily



Question IV. ( 36 – 40 ) Read the text below and look carefully at each line. Find the word which should not be there, write the word by the number. (05 pts)

​

44. B. seeing => to see

45. D. scientific => science

46. B. are => is

47. C. in => on

48. B. a => an

PART C: READING (25 pts):​

Question I. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word.

49. find	50. name	51. and	52. for	53. title
54.is	55. subject	56. before	57. on	58. librarian

Question II.

59. D. most 60. B. provides 61. C. energy 62. C. unable

63. A. Surprisingly 64. D. part 65. A. lose 66. B. into

67. D. more 68. A. skipping



Question III.

69. B. on the sea

70. B. not moving

71. C Smart equipment

72. A. Scientists have built the eco houseboat.

73. D. A special kind of house

PART D: WRITING (15 pts):​

74. Susan often goes to school on foot with her friends.

75. My friend is always forgetting her keys

76. Does the house have a garden in front of it?

77. Showers use a quarter of the water in homes.



Question II.

78. …. interested in lying on the beach ….

79. …. part in a lot of outdoor ….

THẦY CÔ TẢI NHÉ!