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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KIỂM TRA CUỐI HỌC KÌ 2 NĂM HỌC 2022-2023
Môn: Tiếng Anh – lớp 9
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
(không kể thời gian phát đề và nghe)
Đề gồm có 40 câu và 1 bài viết
I. LISTENING (1.5 points)
Part 1: (0.5 point)
You will hear an English woman called Britta talking to an interviewer about her life in Berlin, the capital of Germany. Then choose the best answer.
1. How long has Britta lived in Berlin?
A. four years B. six years C. twenty years
2. What doesn’t Britta like about Berlin?
A. museum B. theater C. traffic
3. The area of Berlin where she lives is ______
A. a good place to eat out
B. a long way from the centre
C. an expensive place to live
4. How does she usually travel around Berlin?
A. on foot B. by bike C. by bus
5. Where do her good friends live?
A. In England B. near her flat C. near her office
Part 2. (1 pt)
Listen to Laura talking to a friend about places to go. What is the problem with each place? For questions 6-10, write a letter A-H to each place.
PLACES
cinema F
6. restaurant _________
7. disco _________
8. swimming pool _________
9. theatre _________
10. sports fields __________
II. PHONETICS, VOCABULARY, AND GRAMMAR (2 points)
11. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from that of the others.
A. enjoyed B. witnessed C. attached D. garnished
12. Choose the word that has a different primary stress pattern from that of the others
A. habitable B. delicious C. dependent D. financial
13. In order to make the soup better, you should add a ____of salt to it.
A. clove B. stick C. slice D. pinch
14. After doing all the stages, _______ the pizza in the oven for about ten minutes.
A. grill B. roast C. bake D. steam
15. If you have no time for breakfast, you should eat a bowl of ____and some milk.
A. garlic B. sugar C. cereal D. bacon
16. My sister is good at languages. She is ______in English and French.
A. rusty B. bilingual C. global D. famous
17. In 2030, there will be still actual classrooms where teachers and students can interact face to face. The ANTONYM of “actual” is ___________
A. virtual B. fluent C. content D. various
18. In 1947, fruit flies ______the first animals launched into space in an American rocket.
A. become B. became C. had become D. have become
19. We used to work with an astronaut ___son has just won the first prize of the contest.
A. who B. which C. whom D. whose
20. The essays ___________in the main hall next week.
A. will assess B. were assessed C. will be assessed D. assess
III. COMMUNICATION (1 point)
Choose the statements (A–H) to complete the conversation between Mary and Peter
Mary: What a pleasant Sunday morning!
Peter: (21)__________________
Mary: I am making some pancakes.
Peter: (22)___________________
Mary: That’s right. It’s the first time I’ve made them.
Peter: (23)___________________
Mary: Yes, some honey and some slices of banana.
Peter: (24)___________________
Mary: Sure, you can give me a hand if you want to.
Peter: (25)___________________
IV. READING (2 points)
Part 1: Fill in the blanks (1 point)
Fathers used to act as “the breadwinner” of their families, and as the teacher of moral and religious values. Today, however, those roles (26) ___________gradually changing.
More and more women are going out to work and earn money. This increases the budget of the family. Apart from that, there are various social welfare programmes which financially (27) ________________mothers in supporting their children. Both these changes have greatly impacted the role of fathers because they make paternal financial support less (28) ______________for many families.
With the burden of financial support reduced, and with a changing concept of a father’s role, modern fathers tend to be more involved (29) ____________ children’s caregiving. They are now spending more time and energy on their children. This trend is still increasing and its (30) ________________will become clearer in the future, especially in traditionally male-dominated societies.
26. A. were B. are C. is D. will be
27. A. provide B. assist C. witness D. describe
28. A. essential B. negative C. suitable D. versatile
29. A. for B. on C. in D. at
30. A. incomes B. distances C. standards D. effects
Part 2: Read the passage carefully and choose the best option. (1 point)
The Apollo programme, which aimed to bring the human crew to the moon, began in 1961. It aimed to bring people to the moon and bring them back to Earth safely. The secondary goal of the program was to allow exploration of the lunar surface. $ 19 billion has been invested in the Apollo program. It is the most expensive space program of its time. The Apollo Mission program consisted of 17 missions of which 6 were unmanned and 11 were manned.
The first six missions were unmanned. The sending of unmanned spacecraft began in 1966 and lasted until 1968. The purpose of unmanned spacecraft was to test rockets and spacecraft. The unmanned missions aimed to ensure that the human crew will safely land on the moon and return safely from it. Unmanned missions performed several tasks, such as researching the weightlessness of the fuel and testing the command, lunar, and service modules, which would later be used to bring man to the moon.
Apollo 7 is the first mission from the Apollo programme to send a human crew into space. The Apollo 7 spacecraft, launched in 1968, orbited the Earth and sent the first live television footage from space to be watched by millions of people around the world. After that, three more manned spacecraft were sent to get everything ready for the launch of the Apollo 11 man landing on the moon.
31. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The unmanned missions of the Apollo programme
B. The manned missions of the Apollo programme
C. The total cost of the Apollo programme
D. The missions of the Apollo programme
32. How many unmanned missions did the Apollo programme have?
A. 17 B. 11 C. 7 D. 6
33. When was the first manned spacecraft launched?
A. In 1961 B. In 1966 C. 1968 D. 1969
34. What does the word “it” in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. the moon B. the purpose C. the crew D. the mission
35. The word “footage” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to “_____”
A. picture B. film C. message D. note
V. WRITING (2 points)
Part 1. Finish the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first one(s) (1 point)
36. My best friend likes to learn about planets and stars.
àMy best friend is into________________________________________
37. Jack London is a famous American writer. He wrote “The call of the wild”
àJack London, who _________________________________________
38. Keep the environment clean or tourists will not visit the village.
àIf you ____________________________________________________
39. Lan speaks English badly, so she doesn’t get a good job.
àIf Lan____________________________________________________
40. The house is used as a pottery gallery. My father grew up there.
àThe house in _____________________________________________
Part 2: Paragraph writing (1 point)
Write a paragraph (100-120 words) about the positive effects of tourism.
The end.
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KIỂM TRA CUỐI HỌC KÌ 2 NĂM HỌC 2022-2023
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC |
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
MÃ ĐỀ 151 |
Đề gồm có 40 câu và 1 bài viết
I. LISTENING (1.5 points)
Part 1: (0.5 point)
You will hear an English woman called Britta talking to an interviewer about her life in Berlin, the capital of Germany. Then choose the best answer.
1. How long has Britta lived in Berlin?
A. four years B. six years C. twenty years
2. What doesn’t Britta like about Berlin?
A. museum B. theater C. traffic
3. The area of Berlin where she lives is ______
A. a good place to eat out
B. a long way from the centre
C. an expensive place to live
4. How does she usually travel around Berlin?
A. on foot B. by bike C. by bus
5. Where do her good friends live?
A. In England B. near her flat C. near her office
Part 2. (1 pt)
Listen to Laura talking to a friend about places to go. What is the problem with each place? For questions 6-10, write a letter A-H to each place.
PROBLEMS A. closed E. full B. cold F. hot C. dirty G. noisy D. expensive H. wet |
cinema F
6. restaurant _________
7. disco _________
8. swimming pool _________
9. theatre _________
10. sports fields __________
II. PHONETICS, VOCABULARY, AND GRAMMAR (2 points)
11. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from that of the others.
A. enjoyed B. witnessed C. attached D. garnished
12. Choose the word that has a different primary stress pattern from that of the others
A. habitable B. delicious C. dependent D. financial
13. In order to make the soup better, you should add a ____of salt to it.
A. clove B. stick C. slice D. pinch
14. After doing all the stages, _______ the pizza in the oven for about ten minutes.
A. grill B. roast C. bake D. steam
15. If you have no time for breakfast, you should eat a bowl of ____and some milk.
A. garlic B. sugar C. cereal D. bacon
16. My sister is good at languages. She is ______in English and French.
A. rusty B. bilingual C. global D. famous
17. In 2030, there will be still actual classrooms where teachers and students can interact face to face. The ANTONYM of “actual” is ___________
A. virtual B. fluent C. content D. various
18. In 1947, fruit flies ______the first animals launched into space in an American rocket.
A. become B. became C. had become D. have become
19. We used to work with an astronaut ___son has just won the first prize of the contest.
A. who B. which C. whom D. whose
20. The essays ___________in the main hall next week.
A. will assess B. were assessed C. will be assessed D. assess
III. COMMUNICATION (1 point)
Choose the statements (A–H) to complete the conversation between Mary and Peter
A. Shall I peel the bananas for you? B. Some pancakes? C. You are a good chef. D. Really? Will we have them with honey? E. I can’t wait to try your first pancakes! They look delicious. F. Will we dip pancakes in honey? G. Yes, it is H. Yes. It’s cool and sunny. What are you doing? |
Peter: (21)__________________
Mary: I am making some pancakes.
Peter: (22)___________________
Mary: That’s right. It’s the first time I’ve made them.
Peter: (23)___________________
Mary: Yes, some honey and some slices of banana.
Peter: (24)___________________
Mary: Sure, you can give me a hand if you want to.
Peter: (25)___________________
IV. READING (2 points)
Part 1: Fill in the blanks (1 point)
Fathers used to act as “the breadwinner” of their families, and as the teacher of moral and religious values. Today, however, those roles (26) ___________gradually changing.
More and more women are going out to work and earn money. This increases the budget of the family. Apart from that, there are various social welfare programmes which financially (27) ________________mothers in supporting their children. Both these changes have greatly impacted the role of fathers because they make paternal financial support less (28) ______________for many families.
With the burden of financial support reduced, and with a changing concept of a father’s role, modern fathers tend to be more involved (29) ____________ children’s caregiving. They are now spending more time and energy on their children. This trend is still increasing and its (30) ________________will become clearer in the future, especially in traditionally male-dominated societies.
26. A. were B. are C. is D. will be
27. A. provide B. assist C. witness D. describe
28. A. essential B. negative C. suitable D. versatile
29. A. for B. on C. in D. at
30. A. incomes B. distances C. standards D. effects
Part 2: Read the passage carefully and choose the best option. (1 point)
The Apollo programme, which aimed to bring the human crew to the moon, began in 1961. It aimed to bring people to the moon and bring them back to Earth safely. The secondary goal of the program was to allow exploration of the lunar surface. $ 19 billion has been invested in the Apollo program. It is the most expensive space program of its time. The Apollo Mission program consisted of 17 missions of which 6 were unmanned and 11 were manned.
The first six missions were unmanned. The sending of unmanned spacecraft began in 1966 and lasted until 1968. The purpose of unmanned spacecraft was to test rockets and spacecraft. The unmanned missions aimed to ensure that the human crew will safely land on the moon and return safely from it. Unmanned missions performed several tasks, such as researching the weightlessness of the fuel and testing the command, lunar, and service modules, which would later be used to bring man to the moon.
Apollo 7 is the first mission from the Apollo programme to send a human crew into space. The Apollo 7 spacecraft, launched in 1968, orbited the Earth and sent the first live television footage from space to be watched by millions of people around the world. After that, three more manned spacecraft were sent to get everything ready for the launch of the Apollo 11 man landing on the moon.
31. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The unmanned missions of the Apollo programme
B. The manned missions of the Apollo programme
C. The total cost of the Apollo programme
D. The missions of the Apollo programme
32. How many unmanned missions did the Apollo programme have?
A. 17 B. 11 C. 7 D. 6
33. When was the first manned spacecraft launched?
A. In 1961 B. In 1966 C. 1968 D. 1969
34. What does the word “it” in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. the moon B. the purpose C. the crew D. the mission
35. The word “footage” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to “_____”
A. picture B. film C. message D. note
V. WRITING (2 points)
Part 1. Finish the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first one(s) (1 point)
36. My best friend likes to learn about planets and stars.
àMy best friend is into________________________________________
37. Jack London is a famous American writer. He wrote “The call of the wild”
àJack London, who _________________________________________
38. Keep the environment clean or tourists will not visit the village.
àIf you ____________________________________________________
39. Lan speaks English badly, so she doesn’t get a good job.
àIf Lan____________________________________________________
40. The house is used as a pottery gallery. My father grew up there.
àThe house in _____________________________________________
Part 2: Paragraph writing (1 point)
Write a paragraph (100-120 words) about the positive effects of tourism.
The end.