MÔN TIẾNG ANH TUYỂN TẬP Đề thi học sinh giỏi tiếng anh 7 cấp huyện CÓ ĐÁP ÁN, FILE NGHE QUA CÁC NĂM TƯỜNG THCS TRẦN MAI NINH, PGD&ĐT TP THANH HOÁ

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TUYỂN TẬP Đề thi học sinh giỏi tiếng anh 7 cấp huyện CÓ ĐÁP ÁN, FILE NGHE QUA CÁC NĂM TƯỜNG THCS TRẦN MAI NINH, PGD&ĐT TP THANH HOÁ được soạn dưới dạng file word, audio gồm các file trang. Các bạn xem và tải về ở dưới.

PHÒNG GD&ĐT TP THANH HOÁ​ ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC TRƯỜNG THCS TRẦN MAI NINH	ĐỀ THI GIAO LƯU HỌC SINH GIỎI TIẾNG ANH 7 VÒNG I NĂM HỌC 2022 - 2023 Ngày thi 17 tháng 03 năm 2023​
Thời gian làm bài 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Đề thi có 04 trang​

Họ và tên: ………………………………………….. Lớp …… Trường THCS Trần Mai Ninh

Số báo danh​	Phòng thi​	Họ tên, chữ kí giám thị 1​	Họ tên, chữ kí giám thị 2​	Số phách​

----------------------------------------------- Đường cắt phách -------------------------------------------------​

Điểm bài thi (Bằng số)​	Điểm bài thi (Bằng chữ)​	Giám khảo 1​	Giám khảo 2​	Số phách​

Question I. You are going to hear a travel agent talking with a client who is planning her summer holiday. For each of the questions 1 – 5 choose the best answer A, B or C .

1. She wants to go on holiday in________.

A. two weeks’ time B. June C. July

2. The woman doesn’t want to go on safari because________.

A. the weather would be too hot. B. it would be too expensive. C. her husband wouldn’t enjoy it.

3. When on holiday, all of the woman’s family enjoy________.

A. going to restaurants. B. staying in the city. C. going to museums.

4. Who went go to Spain last year.

A. the woman B. the woman’s husband. C. the woman’s daughter.

5. The travel agent says that________.

A. Italy is cheap B. the food in Italy is good C. the Italian countryside is beautiful.

Question II. You are going to hear a talk about weekend trips. Listen and complete the table below .Write no more than three words or a number for each answer.

Weekend trips​
Place​	Date​	Number of seat​	Optional extra.​
Stlves	13th February	16	Hepworth museum
London	16th February	45	(6) ……………
(7)………………….	3rd March	18	s.s Great Britain
Salisbury	18th March	(8)……………..	Stonehenge
Bath	(9)………………..	16	American museum
For further information Read the student newspaper or see Social assistant: Jane (10)……………….

PART B PHONETICS. (5 points)​

Question I: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. (3 pts)

11. A. leisure B. pressure C. treasure D. pleasure

12. A. legal B. petal C. pedal D. level

13. A. addresses

B. abilities

C. believes

D. lies

Question II: Choose the word whose main stress pattern is placed differently from the others. (2 pts)

14. A. population B. government C. understand D. scientific

15. A. parade B. behave C. surprise D. damage

PART C: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY

Question I: Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best fits the blank space in each sentence. (10 pts)

16. They’ve got some _……………………….…___shoes in the sale at Derbyshire’s

A. fantastic pink silk Russian ballet B. fantastic pink Russian silk ballet

C. Russian fantastic pink silk ballet D. pink fantastic Russian silk ballet

17. On National Day there is usually a ……………………….. in Ba Dinh square in Ha Noi.

A. festival B. party C. celebration D. parade

18. She got up late and rushed to the bus stop.

A. came into B. went leisurely C. dropped by D. went quickly

19. “Was he disappointed?” - “Yes, he found the movies ...................”

A. boringly B. boring C. bores D. bored

20. He arrived at the airport with only ……………luggage.

A. a little B. a few C. any D. a lot of

21. I’m very busy at present. I …………………………….. my report on time.

A. may finish B. must not finish C. may not finish D. didn’t finish

22. ................... take the train instead of the bus? It’s late.

A. Why don’t B. Let’s C. How about D. Why not

23. ................. there be any news, please inform me at once.

A. Should B. If C. Unless D. When

24. We found that ……………………. students in this class are from the same city.

A. most of

B. most all

C. almost the

D. most of the

25. His face looks …………., but I can’t remember his name.

A. familiar B. alike C. memorial D. similar



Question III: Give the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets to complete the following sentences. (07points)

26.The little girl wasted half an hour (look)………………………………for her picture book.

27.On the left (be)…………………………….. three paintings by Picasso

28. Look at those dark clouds! It (rain)……………………………………………………….

29. The articles ( write)……………………………… by John Smith are widely read everyday

30 The number of vehicles in Vietnam (increase)…………………………... fast in the past few years.

31. I (not use).......................................... the car this evening, so you can have it.

32. My father (fight) ………………………. for 4 years in the last war



Question II: Supply the correct form of the capital words at the end of the sentences. Write the answers on your answer sheet (07points)

33. She felt alone and ……………………………………………………………….… FRIEND

34 . He is so ……………………..…….! He is always leaving his things everywhere. ANNOY

35. The thick fog caused the …………………………………of many trains. cancel

36. It seems……………..….to change the timetable so often. LOGIC

37. Traditional ………………………….. are a good source of fun and entertainment CELEBRATE

38. Alex usually ……………….…Diana at the piano when she sings COMPANY

39. Bell ……………………………….. demonstrated his invention SUCCESS



Question III: There are SIX mistakes in the text (from 40 to 45 ) . Identify each mistake, write it down and give your correction ( the first has been done for you). (6 pts)



Saving energy don’t have to be expensive or time-consuming. But what can you do to save energy?

There is plenty that you can do to help the process of energy conservation. You can save energy by doing things like making sure that the kettle doesn’t contain more water as that you need, always washing a full load in the washing machine rather than a half load or turning off your central heating by 10C – this could cut your heating bill by 10%. Making sure that hot water taps are not left run and replace washers if your taps drip. In work you can turn off any lights and your computer if you are not using . Close your curtains at dusk to keep the warm air to escaping through the windows. Switching off electrical appliances when they are not in use make a big contribution to energy-saving.

Example - line 1 don’t -> doesn’t
40	43
41	44
42	45

PART D: READING COMPREHENSION



Question I: Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase for each space.



Weather influences the lives of everyone. The climate of any country depends on its position on Earth, its (46)……………….from the sea and how high it is. In countries which have sea all (47)……………………….them, like Britain and New Zealand, winters are mild and summers are cool. There is not a huge change from one season to(48) ……………………Countries near the Equator have hot weather all year with some (49)……………………. rain, except in deserts where it rains (50)………………….little. Above the desert there(51) ……………….no clouds in the sky, (52)……………..the heat of the sun can easily warm the ground during the day but it gets very cold at night. People are always(53)………………………………….. in unusual weather and pictures of tornadoes, for example, are shown on television. Strong winds and rain can (54)………………………… a lot of damage to buildings. (55) ……………. modern methods of weather forecasting, they can still surprise us.



Question II Choose the best answer to complete the sentences by circling A, B, C or D.

A WELSH FESTIVAL

​

Wales has a population of about three millions. English is the main language and only twenty per cent speak both Welsh and English. Every year _______(56) August there is a Welsh – speaking festival. It _______ (57) place in a different town each year so everyone has the chance for it to be near them. Local people ________(58) years making plans for when the festival will be in _______ (59) town. Each festival is ______ (60) by about 160,000 people. They travel not only from nearby towns and villages _______(61) also from the rest of the British Isles and _______ (62) from abroad. There are concerts, plays and _______(63) to find best singers, poets, writers, and so on. Shops sell Welsh music, books, pictures and clothes as ______(64) as food and drink. The festival provides a chance for Welsh – speaking people to be together for a whole week, with _______ (65) Welsh language all around them.

56. A. on B. by C. in D. at

57. A. takes B. finds C. has D. makes

58. A. pass B. put C. spend D. do

59. A. our B. their C. his D. its

60. A. arrived B. attended C. joined D. come

61. A. but B. and C. since D. however

62. A. just B. hardly C. quite D. even

63. A. tests B. examinations C. competitions D. races

64. A. long B. far C. good D. well

65. A. one B. a C. the D. some

Question III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer from A,B,C,D.



One of the most important discoveries of the nineteenth century was a method of using natural gas for cooking and heating. Large amounts of natural gas are found in the United States, usually several feet below the surface of the earth. Natural gas is most often found in places where petroleum, the oil from which gasoline is made, is found. Often the natural gas must be removed before the oil itself can be reached.

For many years after natural gas was first discovered, it was thought to have no value. Finally, however, people began to understand its use and to find ways of storing it and moving it from place to place. Today natural gas is stored in large tanks and used for lighting, cooking and heating. It has also been used for electric generators and hybrid cars recently. In many ways natural gas is one of our finest fuels. It can be used for cooking without making the room hot. It is cheap and can be moved easily from one place to another through long pipelines, some of which are hundreds of miles in length.

66. It can be inferred from the passage that ________.

A. natural gas is useless

B. people once wasted natural gas

C. natural gas is moved in trucks

D. natural gas is found where there is no petroleum

67. This passage as a whole is about ________.

A. discovering natural gas B. finding petroleum

C. using natural gas and petroleum D. natural gas and its use

68. Which of the following is NOT true about natural gas?

A. It is not used for heating. B. It moves through pipes.

C. It is cheap. D. It can be stored.

69. According to the passage, the easiest way to move natural gas from one place to another is ____.

A. to liquidize it and move it through pipelines.

B. to liquidize it and move it by trucks.

C. through pipelines.

D. to store it in large tanks to move.

70. How many uses of natural gas are mentioned?

A. two B. three C. four D. five

PART D: WRITING (10 points)​

Question I. Complete each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed above it.

71. They manage to finish the project in time for the presentation.

They succeeded ....................................................................................................................................................



72.I will help you if you promise to try harder.

Unless ………………………………………………………………………………………………...………..



73. What I saw in the football match surprised me.

I ………………………………………………………………………………………...………………………...

74. Because she behaves well, everybody loves her.

Because of ………………………………………………………………………………………………………



75. The mountain route is obviously dangerous, but there is no alternative.

Dangerous …………………………………………………………………………………….....................…………….…



Question II. Finish each of the following sentences so that it has a similar meaning to the sentence printed before it, using the word given. DON’T CHANGE THE WORD GIVEN



76. I’m looking forward to the weekend. THINKING

I’m…………………………………………………………………………….………..……………………….

77.Yoss did not come to class yesterday. FROM Yoss ....................................................................................................................................................................

78. Would you mind not smoking in here? SMOKE I’d rather you………………………………………………………………………………………………….....

79.Tam used to type faster than she does now. NOT

Tam ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

80. I was strongly impressed by the performance of that singer. MADE

The……………………………………………………………………………...………………….……………

THE END

​

PHÒNG GD&ĐT TP THANH HOÁ​ TRƯỜNG THCS TRẦN MAI NINH HD chấm có: 02 trang

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM THI GIAO LƯU HỌC SINH GIỎI TIẾNG ANH 7 VÒNG I NĂM HỌC 2022 - 2023 ​

PART A. LISTENING (10 points)​

Question I. You are going to hear a travel agent talking with a client who is planning her summer holiday. For each of the questions 1 – 5 choose the best answer A, B or C.

Sentence​	Key​
1​	C​
2​	B​
3​	A​
4​	C​
5​	B​

II. You are going to hear a talk about weekend trips. Listen and complete the table below. Write no more than three words or a number for each answer.

Sentence​	Key​
6​	Tower of London​
7​	Bristol​
8​	50​
9​	23rd March​
10​	Yentob​

PART B PHONETICS. (5 points)​

Question I: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. (3 pts)

11. B. pressure 12. A. legal 13. A. addresses

Question II: Choose the word whose main stress pattern is placed differently from the others.

(2 pts)



14.B. government 15.D. damage

PART C: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY ( points)​

Question I: Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best fits the blank space in each sentence. (10 pts)



16. B. fantastic pink Russian silk ballet 17. D. parade

18.D. went quickly 19. B. boring

20. A. a little 21. C. may not finish

22 D. Why not 23. A. Should

24. D. Most of the 25. A. familiar



Question III: Give the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets to complete the following sentences. (7 pts



26. looking 27. are 28. is going to rain

29. written 30. has increased. 31. am not using

32. fought.



Question II: Supply the correct form of the capital words at the end of the sentences. Write the answers on your answer sheet (07points) your answer sheet (08 points).



33. FRIENDLESS 34 . ANNOYING 35. ATTENDANCE 36. ILLOGICAL

37. CELEBRATIONS 38. ACCOMPANIES 39. SUCCESSFULLY

Question III: There are SIX mistakes in the text (from 40 to 45) . Identify each mistake, write it down and give your correction (the first has been done for you). (6 pts)

Example - line 1 don’t -> doesn’t
40 line 3 as -> than	43 line 6 using -> using them
41 line 4 off -> down	44 line 7 to -> from
42 line 5 run -> running	45 line 8 appliance -> appliances

PART D: READING COMPREHENSION (25 points)

​

Question I: Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase for each space.



46. distance 47. around 48. Another 49. heavy

50. very/ so / too 51. are 52. so 53. interested.

54. cause. 55. despite



Question II Choose the best answer to complete the sentences by circling A, B, C or D.



56 . C. in 57. A. takes 58. C. spend 59. B. their

60. B. attended 61. A. but 62. D. even 63. C. competitions

64. D. well 65. C. the



Question III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer from A,B, C, D. (10 pts)



66. B 67. D 68. A 69. C 70. D

PART D: WRITING (10 points)​

Question I. Complete each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed above it.



71. They succeeded (in ) finishing the project in time for the presentation.

72. Unless you promise to try harder, I won’t help you.

73. I was surprised at / by what I saw in the football match.

74. Because of her good behavior, everybody loves her.

75. Dangerous as/ though the mountain route is, there is no alternative.



Question II. Finish each of the following sentences so that it has a similar meaning to the sentence printed before it, using the word given. DON’T CHANGE THE WORD GIVEN



76. I'm thinking with pleasure about the weekend./ I’m thinking about the weekend with pleasure.

77. Yoss was absent from class yesterday.

78. I’d rather you didn’t smoke in here.

79. Tam does not type as/so fast as she used to.

80. The performance of that singer made a strong impression on me.





Hướng dẫn chấm:

- Tổng toàn bài là 80 phần học sinh phải làm, mỗi phần làm đúng được 1 điểm.

- Thang điểm: 20

Tổng số điểm những câu, cụm từ, từ làm đúng

- Điểm bài thi = ------------------------------------------------------

4

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